PENJELASAN
Sebagaimana
diketahui, TOEFL Test (Paper Based Test) terdiri atas 3 section :
- Listening Comprehension (50 Pertanyaan)
- Structure & Written Expression (40 Pertanyaan)
- Reading Comprehension (60 Pertanyaan)
Seluruh soal
(150 soal) harus anda selesaikan menjawabnya dalam 100 menit.
Penjelasan untuk
section 1 : Listening comprehension :
Listening
Comprehension terbagi atas 3 bagian :
- Part A:
Disini anda akan mendengar speaker membacakan kalimat-kalimat tertentu untuk
setiap nomor soal. Tugas anda adalah mencari kalimat pada pilihan jawaban A, B,
C, D, yang artinya paling mendekati arti kalimat yang dibacakan. Jangan terkecoh
dengan pilihan jawaban yang mengandung kata-kata yang serupa dengan yang
dibacakan speaker di audio, karena itu biasanya jawaban yang salah. Jadi,
carilah kalimat jawaban yang arti keseluruhannya serupa dengan kalimat yang
dibacakan, dan bukan jawaban yang hanya berisi kata-kata yang sama, tapi bisa
jadi arti keseluruhannya berbeda.
Part B :
Disini, untuk setiap nomor soal, akan ada pembicaraan antara Laki-laki (Man)
dan Perempuan (Woman). Lalu diikuti pertanyaan. Tugas anda menjawab pertanyaan,
berdasarkan percakapan yang anda dengar.
Part C :
Pada Part C, anda akan mendengar satu cerita/percakapan panjang, yang harus
anda gunakan untuk menjawab 3-5 pertanyaan. Karena itu, adalah penting sekali
bagi anda untuk dapat mengingat data/informasi penting yang disampaikan dalam
percakapan/cerita.
Untuk Section 2 & 3, kerjakan
seperti test biasa.
SECTION 1 : LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time : 30 Minutes
50 Questions
Part A
DIRECTIONS
For Each Problem in Part A, you will hear a short statement. The statement will
be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, and you must
listen carefully in order to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear a statement, read the four sentences in your test book and decide
which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.
CLICK ON THIS ICON :
1. (A). Sally went to the wrong
class
(B). Sally was late for class because she got lost
(C). Sally missed the class
(D). Sally had some trouble finding the class, but she arrived on time
2. (A). Jane
is going on vacation
(B). Jane is leaving her job temporarily for health reason.
(C). During the summer, Jane often misses work because of illness
(D). Jane is sick of working all the time
3. (A).
Henry arrived at work on time this morning
(B). Henry was two hours late this morning.
(C). Henry worked late today.
(D). Henry was an hour late for work this morning.
4. (A). I’m
not sure which type of flowers Jane sent me
(B). Jane received many kind of flowers.
(C). I received many kind of flowers from Jane
(D). I appreciate Jane’s sending me flowers when I was ill.
5. (A).
William slept all the way from Georgia to New York.
(B). George didn’t sleep at all on the trip.
(C). William was half asleep all the time that he was driving.
(D). William didn’t sleep at all on the trip.
6. (A). Too
many people came to the meeting.
(B). There were not enough people at the meeting to inspect the document.
(C). We had expected more people to come to the meeting.
(D). There were not enough seats for all the people.
7. (A). The
professor said he was sorry that he had not announced the test sooner
(B). The professor was sorry that he had forgotten to bring the test to class.
(C). The professor was sorry that he hadn’t given the test earlier.
(D). The professor said he was sorry that he had not given the result of the
test
sooner
8. (A). Mary
is taking a leave of absence from her job because of her health.
(B). Mary is not going to return to her job.
(C). Mary is right to quit her job.
(D). Mary did very good work but now she is quitting her job.
9. (A). John
will be able to buy groceries.
(B). John doesn’t have enough money to buy groceries.
(C). John wouldn’t buy groceries even if he had enough money.
(D). John can’t find his grocery money.
10. (A).
Hary sold no magazine
(B). Hary sold only one magazine
(C). Hary has never sold as many magazine as he sold today
(D). Hary sold five magazine at one house
11. (A).
Eighty people came to the rally
(B). Forty people came to the rally.
(C). One hundred sixty people came to the rally.
(D). One hundred people came to the rally.
12. (A). We
are going to meet Fred and Mary at the movies if we had time.
(B). We went to the movies with Fred and Mary, but the theatre was closed.
(C). We couldn’t meet Fred and Mary at the movies because we didn’t have any
money.
(D). Fred and Mary were supposed to meet us at the movies, but their car broke
down.
13. (A).
Frank told the contractor to do the work in spite of the cost.
(B). Frank told the contractor that the price was too high.
(C). Frank cannot afford the work on his house.
(D). Frank repaired his own house.
14. (A). I
studied last night because I had to
(B). I tried to study last night but the material was too hard.
(C). I couldn’t study last night because I was very tired.
(D). I studied last night because I was bored.
15. (A).
John was supposed to give the awards at the banquet but he didn’t.
(B). John was given an award, but he refused it.
(C). John didn’t go to the banquet.
(D). John went to the awards banquet but he refused to give a speech.
16. (A).
Edna goes to the movie every year.
(B). Edna hasn’t gone to the movie yet this year, but last year she did.
(C). Edna doesn’t go to the movie unless she has time.
(D). Edha hasn’t seen a movie for a long time.
17. (A). He
is out of sugar
(B). He puts only sugar in his coffee.
(C). There isn’t enough sugar in his coffee.
(D). He likes sugar but the coffee he is drinking has too much.
18. (A).
Arnold was embarrassed because his date wanted to pay for her own meal.
(B). Arnold had less than $15.
(C). Arnold didn’t want his date to know how much the food cost.
(D). Arnold didn’t want to pay for his date’s meal.
19. (A).
George didn’t have $1000 for the man.
(B). George wanted more than $1000 for the car.
(C). George agreed to take $1000 for his car.
(D). George thought that $1000 was too much to pay for a used car.
20. (A).
Harvey turned around to answer the teacher’s question.
(B). Harvey is an intelligent student.
(C). Harvey must have been embarrassed.
(D). Harvey looked in the red book for the answer to the question.
PART B
DIRECTIONS
In part B, you will hear 15 short conversations between two speakers. At the
end of each conversation, a third voice will ask a question about what was
said. The question will be spoken just one time. After you hear a conversation
and the question about it, read the four possible answers and decide which one
would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.
21. (A). She’s tired of teaching.
(B). She was dismissed from her job
(C). She’s changing jobs.
(D). The school is too hot.
22. (A). She
got up later than usual.
(B). The bus was late.
(C). She forgot her class.
(D). Her clock was wrong.
23. (A). $39
(B). $35
(C). $4
(D). $5
24. (A). She
thinks his lectures are boring.
(B). She thinks his tests are too long.
(C). She doesn’t like his choice of test questions.
(D). She doesn’t think he prepares well enough..
25. (A).
getting a suntan.
(B). swimming.
(C). taking a bath.
(D). watching for an eclipse.
26. (A).
looking for water
(B). planting something
(C). looking for something
(D). getting dirty.
27. (A). a
movie
(B). a documentary.
(C). a soccer game
(D). a comedy
28. (A).
America
(B). England
(C). Switzerland
(D). Sweden
29. (A).
2:50
(B). 2:15
(C). 3:50
(D). 3:15
30. (A). The
woman will go home for dinner.
(B). The woman won’t go to the concert.
(C). The man and woman will eat together.
(D). Both of them will go home before going to the concert.
31. (A).
Wiwtner
(B). Wittner
(C). Wittmer
(D). Witner
32. (A).
7:55
(B). 7:45
(C). 7:50
(D). 8:00
33. (A).
$17.50
(B). $19.95
(C). $35
(D). $70
34. (A). 5
(B). 3
(C). 2
(D). 8
35. (A). on
a train
(B). on a boat
(C). on a plane
(D). on a bus
Part C
DIRECTIONS.
In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and/or
conversations. After each talk or conversation, you will be asked some
questions. The talks and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not
be written out for you, so you will have to listen carefully in order to
understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and
decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
36. (A).
Spain
(B). Latin America
(C). Florida
(D). America
37. (A).
soccer
(B). handball
(C). football
(D). horse racing
38. (A). Jai
alai is one of the fastest moving games.
(B). Jai alai requires a great deal of skill and endurance.
(C). Jai alai can be played as singles or doubles.
(D). It is illegal to bet on Florida jai alai games.
39. (A).
baseball
(B). Ping-Pong
(C). handball
(D). badminton
40. (A). in
a clothing store
(B). in customs
(C). at a bank
(D). in a liquor store
41. (A). 1
(B). 2
(C). 3
(D). 4
42. (A).
four weeks
(B). three weeks
(C). four months
(D). two months
43. (A).
plants
(B). rum
(C). meat
(D). $100
44. (A).
multiple telegraph
(B). telephone
(C). aviation
(D). acoustics
45. (A).
acoustical science
(B). aviation
(C). adventure
(D). architecture
46. (A). He
worked very hard, but never achieved success.
(B). He spent so many years working in aviation because he wanted to be a pilot
(C). He dedicated his life to science and the well being of mankind
(D). He worked with the deaf so that he could invent the telephone
47. (A). Bell
was born in the eighteenth century.
(B). Bell worked with the deaf
(C). Bell experimented with the science of acoustics.
(D). Bell invented a multiple telegraph.
48. (A). 100
(B). 25
(C). 35
(D). 50
49. (A). He
wrote an adventure novel.
(B). He was a spy.
(C). He was a bull fighter
(D). He wrote about bullfighting
50. (A). a
thrilling novel of espionage
(B). an account of bullfighting
(C). a history of Spain
(D). a biography of Ernest Hemingway
STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION.
______________________________________________________________
SECTION II : STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN
EXPRESSION
Time : 25 Minutes, 40 questions.
Part A
DIRECTIONS
Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four words or phrases, marked A,B,C,D. Choose the one word or phrase that best
completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be
seen.
1. The
attorney told his client that _________________________
A. They had little chance of winning the case.
B. The case was of a small chance to win
C. It was nearly impossible to win him the case.
D. The case had a minimum chance to be won by him.
2. One of the professor’s greatest attributes is _______________
A. when he gives lectures
B. how in the manner that he lectures
C. the way to give lectures
D. his ability to lecture
3. The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained _______________
A. a remembrance that interest rate were to raise the following month
B. a reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following
C. to remember that interest rates were going up next month
D. a reminder that interest rates would rise the following month.
4. ______________ was the day before yesterday.
A. The France’s Independence Day
B. The day of the French independence
C. French’s Independence Day
D. France’s Independence Day
5. It was not until she had arrived home ______________ remembered her
appointment with the doctor.
A. when she
B. that she
C. and she
D. she
6. George would certainly have attended the proceedings ________________
A. if he didn’t get a flat tire
B. if the flat tire hadn’t happended.
C. had he not had a flat tire
D. had the tire not flattened itself.
7. _______________ received law degrees as today.
A. Never so many women have
B. Never have so many women
C. The women aren’t ever
D. Women who have never
8. The students liked that professor’s course because _____________________
A. there was few if any homework
B. not a lot of homework
C. of there wasn’t a great amount of homework
D. there was little or no homework.
9. George ______________ he could improve his test scores, but he didn’t have
enough time to study.
A. knew to
B. knew how
C. knew how that
D. knew how to
10. _________________ he would have come to class.
A. If Mike is able to finish his homework
B. Would Mike be able to finish his homework
C. If Mike could finish his homework
D. If Mike had been able to finish his homework.
11. Lee contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute
_______________
A. one other fifty dollars
B. the same amount also
C. another fifty
D. more fifty dollars
12. The
people at the party were worried about Janet because no one was aware
_____________ she had gone.
A. where that
B. of where
C. of the place where
D. the place
13. Fred’s
yearly income since he changed professions has _________________
A. nearly tripled
B. got almost three times bigger
C. almost grown by three times
D. just about gone up three times
14. Nancy
hasn’t begun working on her Ph.D, ________________ working on her master’s.
A. still because she is yet
B. yet as a result she is still
C. yet because she is still
D. still while she is already
15. The
director of this organization must know _____________________
A. money management, selling, and able to satisfy the stockholders
B. how to manage money, selling his product, and be able to satisfy the
stockholders
C. how to manage money, sell his product, and satisfy the stockholders
D. money management, selling, the idea of being able to satisfy the
stockholders.
Part B
DIRECTIONS
In question 16 – 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A,B,C,D. Identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill
in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
16. She
wishes that we didn’t send her the candy yesterday because
she’s on a diet..................................A ..............B ............................C .............D
17. They are planning on attending the convention next
month, and so I am.
........................A ............B .............................C
......................D
18. Today was such beautiful day that I couldn’t bring myself
to complete all my chores.....................A
...................... ...B ................C .........D
19. While they were away at the beach, they allowed their neighbors
use their
....... A ............B
............................................................C
......D
barbeque grill.
20. The
artist tried stimulate interest in painting by taking his
students to the
................................A .........B ......................C
...........................D
museums.
21. Mumps are
a very common disease which usually affects children.
.................A ......................B
...........C.......
D
22. Nancy said that she went to the supermarket before
coming home.
.......................A...........B ...C ...............................D
23. Before she moved here, Arlene had been president of the
organization since
........ A............................................B
...................C .......................D
four years.
24. Each of
the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name
................A ................B
....................................................C
is called.
....D
25. The athlete, together with his coach, and several
relatives, are traveling to
.............A .....................B
......C .......................................D
the Olympic Games.
26. Professor
Duncan teaches both anthropology as well as sociology each
fall.
.................................A .......B .........C
.......................................D
27. My brother is in California on vacation, but I wish he was
here so that he
........................A ..............B ..................................C
could help me repair my car.
..........................D
28. I certainly appreciate him telling us about the delay
in delivering the materials
............A .....................B
......C ....................................D
because we had planned to begin work tomorrow.
29. The
chemistry instructor explained the experiment in such of a way
that it
.........................................................................A........B
was easily understood.
.C............D
30. Rudolf Nureyef has become one of the greatest dancer
that the ballet world
................................A .......................... B ........C
has ever known.
...........D
31. He has less friends in his classes now than he had last
year.
.................A ...............B
....................C .................D
32. The town we visited was a four – days journey from our hotel,
so we took the
...................................A .........B ...................................................C
train instead of the bus.
.....................D
33. The influence of the nation’s literature, art, and science have
captured
.....................................A ..................................B .......C
widespread attention.
......D
34. The leader emphasized the need for justice and equality between
his people.
..........................................A .........B .............................C
.............D
35. Many of the population in the rural areas is composed of
manual laborers.
........A ........................................B
................C ........................D
36. Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s
mind, but he refuses
............................A .......B ....................................C
to listen.
....D
37. Keith is one of the most intelligent boys of the science
class.
...........................A ...B ........................C
.........D
38. The girls were sorry to had missed the singers when
they arrived at the
........................A ................B .........................C
.............D
airport.
39. When Keith visited Alaska, he lived in a igloo in the winter months
as well as in
................................................A......B ............................C
...........D
the spring.
40. The
harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large
audience.
.......................... A ...........B ............C
.....................D
STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION SECTION. IF YOU
FINISH BEFORE TIME IS UP, CHECK YOUR WORK ON PARTS A AND B OF THIS SECTION
ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.
SECTION III.
VOCABULARY AND READING COMPREHENSION.
Time : 45
Minutes
60 Questions
Part A
DIRECTIONS
In questions 1-30 each sentence has an underlined word or phrase. Below each
sentence are four other words or phrases, marked A,B,C,D. You are to choose the
one word or phrase that best keeps the meaning of the original sentence if it
is substituted for the underlined word or phrase. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval
cannot be seen.
1. The
fourth year sociology class was a homogeneous group of university
students.
A. uniform
B. dreary
C. unrelated
D. distinguishable
2. The tornado caused irreparable damage to the Florida citrus corp.
A. irresolute
B. irresponsible
C. irrecoverable
D. irregular
3. The discontented students retaliated by boycotting the school
cafeteria.
A. rewarded
B. vindicated
C. took revenge
D. fluctuated
4. The spy used a fictitious name while dealing with the enemy.
A. funny
B. false
C. real
D. foreign
5. John didn’t enjoy the rock concert because he thought the tempo was
bad.
A. audience
B. rhythm
C. singer
D. weather
6. The flowers on the table were a manifestation of the child’s love for
his mother
A. a demonstration
B. an infestation
C. a combination
D. a satisfaction
7. Marvin’s doctor said he was obese and had to take immediate measures
to correct the problem.
A. anemic
B. tired
C. corpulent
D. petulant
8. Frank condoned his brother’s actions because he knew he meant well.
A. overlooked
B. praised
C. condemned
D. satisfied
9. John’s unabashed behavior caused great concern among his teachers.
A. terrible
B. unembarrassed
C. cowardly
D. unforgivable
10. Many new medicines today eradicate diseases before they become too
widespread.
A. wipe out
B. identify
C. prolong
D. suspend
11. The
director’s spacious new office overlooked the city.
A. quiet
B. colorful
C. roomy
D. comfortable
12. The
thieves were trying to perpetrate a robbery in the office building.
A. view
B. interfere with
C. stop
D. commit
13. Before
the earthquake hit the area, many minor tremors were felt.
A. spasms
B. noises
C. vibrations
D. crumblings
14. When the
protestor entered the meeting clad only in a beach towel, the audience was dumbfounded.
A. speechless
B. excited
C. content
D. applauding
15. Marcia’s
career involved a dual role for her as a counselor and a teacher.
A. tiring
B. dedicated
C. twofold
D. satisfying
16. Andy’s jocular
manner made him loved by all his companion.
A. easygoing
B. jesting
C. intelligent
D. artistic
17. Sally
was mortified by her date’s unprecedented behavior
A. eradicated
B. humiliated
C. overjoyed
D. challenged
18. The
student’s wan appearance caused the teacher to send him home.
A. pale
B. shabby
C. bellicose
D. hungry
19. Nothing
could efface the people’s memory of their former leader’s cruelty
although many years had elapsed.
A. broaden
B. erase
C. edify
D. substantiate
20. The
doctor asked the patient to disrobe before the examination.
A. take medicine
B. breathe deeply
C. relax
D. undress
21. The
protesting crowd dispersed after the rally
A. scattered
B. become violent
C. fought
D. danced
22. Because
Dolly is such a good cook, she has concocted a great new recipe.
A. created
B. named
C. epitomized
D. baked
23. After
the drops were placed in the patient’s eyes, his pupils became dilated.
A. enlarged
B. smaller
C. irritated
D. sensible
24. Her brusque
manner surprised all of the guests.
A. satirical
B. humorous
C. shameless
D. abrupt
25. In that
organization, they place emphasis on mutual aid and cooperation.
A. reward
B. work
C. stress
D. pressure
26. She
didn’t say much, but her tone of voice insinuated more.
A. blamed
B. suggested
C. demanded
D. intervened
27. Jan took
many snapshots while on vacation in Europe.
A. notes
B. gifts
C. photos
D. clothes
28. The
young couple chose a secluded place for their picnic.
A. authentic
B. sunny
C. isolated
D. grassy
29. The daring
young man rode through the Indian village trying to find his long-lost sister.
A. bold
B. cowardly
C. persistent
D. captured
30. The
victors defined their terms to be conquered.
A. dictated
B. wrote
C. insinuated
D. forced.
Part B
DIRECTIONS
In the rest
of this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several
questions about it. For questions 31 – 60, you are to choose the one best answer,
A,B,C,D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in that passage.
Questions 31
through 34 are based on the following reading.
Elizabeth
Blackwell was born in England in 1821, and emigrated to New York City when she
was ten years old. One day she decided that she wanted to become a doctor. That
was nearly impossible for a woman in the middle of the nineteenth century.
After writing many letters seeking admission to medical school, she was finally
accepted by a doctor in Philadelphia. So determined was she, that she taught
school and gave music lessons to earn money for her tuition.
In1849, after graduation from medical school, she decided to further her
education in Paris. She wanted to be a surgeon, but a serious eye infection
forced her to abandon the idea.
Upon returning to the United States, she found it difficult to start her own
practice because she was a woman. By 1857 Elizabeth and her sister, also a
doctor, along with another female doctor, managed to open a new hospital, the
first for women and children. Besides being the first female physician and
founding her own hospital, she also established the first medical school for
women.
31. Why
couldn’t Elizabeth Blackwell realize her dreams of becoming a surgeon ?
A. She couldn’t get admitted to medical school.
B. She decided to further her education in Paris.
C. A serious eye infection halted her quest.
D. It was difficult for her to start a practice in the United States.
32. What main obstacle almost
destroyed Elizabeth’s chances for becoming a doctor ?
A. She was a woman
B. She wrote too many letters
C. She couldn’t graduate from medical school.
D. She couldn’t establish her hospital.
33. How many
years elapsed between her graduation from medical school and the opening of her
hospital?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 19
D. 36
34. All of
the following are “firsts” in the life of Elizabeth Blackwell, except :
A. she became the first female physician.
B. she was the first woman surgeon
C. she and several other women founded the first hospital for women and
children.
D. she established the first medical school for women.
Questions 35 through 38 are based on the following reading.
Glands
manufacture and secrete necessary substances. Exocrine glands secrete their products
through ducts, but endocrine glands, or ductless glands release their products
directly into the bloodstream.
One important endocrine gland is the thyroid gland. It is in the neck and has
two lobes, one on each side of the windpipe. The thyroid gland collects iodine
from the blood and produces thyroxine, an important hormone, which is stores in
an inactive form. When thyroxine is needed by the body, the thyroid gland
excretes it directly into the bloodstream. Thyroxine is combined in the body
cells with other chemicals and affects many functions of the body.
The thyroid gland may be underactive or overactive, resulting in problems. An
underactive thyroid causes hypothyroidism, while an overactive one causes
hyperthyroidism. The former problem, called myxedema in adults and cretinism in
children, causes the growth process to slow down. A cretin’s body and mind do
not grow to their full potential. Hyperthyroidism, on the other hand, results
in extreme nervousness, an increase in heart action, and other problems.
Either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism may result in goiter, or an enlarged
thyroid gland. A goiter will appear when the body is not getting enough iodine.
Goiter is less common today, since most people use iodized salt.
35. The
thyroid gland is called an endocrine gland
A. because it has ducts
B. because it has lobes
C. because it excretes directly into the bloodstream
D. because it is located in the neck.
36. A cretin
is
A. a child with hyperthyroidism
B. an adult with an underperforming thyroid gland
C. a young person with hypothyroidism
D. an extremely irritable child
37. Which of
the following is a probable result of myxedema ?
A. sluggishness
B. hyperactivity
C. overproduction of thyroxine
D. perspiration
38. A goiter
is
A. a person with myxedema
B. a swollen thyroid gland
C. an underactive thyroid gland
D. a chemical.
Questions 39 through 43 are based on the following reading.
A recent
investigation by scientists at the US Geological Survey shows that strange
animal behavior might help predict future earthquakes. Investigators found such
occurrences in a ten – kilometer radius of the epicenter of a fairly recent
quake. Some birds screeched and flew about wildly; dogs yelped and ran around
uncontrollably.
Scientists believe that animals can perceive these environmental changes as
early as several days before the mishap.
In 1976 after observing animal behavior, the Chinese were able to predict a
devastating quake. Although hundreds of thousands of people were killed, the
government was able to evacuate millions of other people and thus keep the
death toll at a lower level.
39. What
prediction may be made by observing animal behavior ?
A. an impending earthquake
B. the number of people who will die
C. the ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter
D. environmental changes.
40. Why can
animals perceive these changes when humans cannot ?
A. Animals are smarter than humans
B. Animals have certain instincts that humans don’t possess.
C. By running around the house, they can feel the vibrations.
D. Humans don’t know where to look.
41. Which of
the following is not true
A. Some animals may be able to sense an approaching earthquake.
B. By observing animal behavior scientists perhaps can predict earthquakes.
C. The Chinese have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved many lives.
D. All birds and dogs in a ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter went wild
before the quake.
42. In this
passage, the word evacuate most nearly means
A. remove
B. exile
C. destroy
D. emaciate
43. If
scientists can accurately predict earthquakes, there will be :
A. fewer animals going crazy
B. a lower death rate
C. fewer people evacuated
D. fewer environmental changes.
Questions 44
through 47 are based on the following reading.
As a result
of the recent oil crisis, 9.9 million of California’s 15 million motorists were
subjected to an old-even plan of gas rationing. The governor signed a bill
forcing motorists with license plates ending in odd numbers to buy gas only on
odd-numbered days, and those ending in even numbers on even-numbered days.
Those whose plates were all letters or specially printed had to follow the
odd-numbered plan.
Exceptions were made only for emergencies and out-of-states drivers. Those who
could not get gas were forced to walk, bike, or skate to work.
This plan was expected to eliminate the long lines at many service stations.
Those who tried to purchase more than twenty gallons of gas or tried to fill a
more than half filled tank would be fined and possibly imprisoned.
44. All of
the following are true except
A. officials hoped that this plan would alleviate long gas lines.
B. a gas limit was imposed
C. California has 9.9 million drivers
D. the governor signed the bill concerning gas rationing.
45. Those
who violated the rationing program
A. were forced to walk
B. were fined and possibly imprisoned
C. had to wait in long lines
D. were forced to use odd-numbered days
46. The gas
rationing plan was not binding on
A. even-numbered license plates
B. odd-numbered license plates.
C. all-lettered plates
D. out-of-state plates
47.
California was forced to adapt this plan because
A. a recent oil crisis necessitated id
B. too many drivers were filling their tanks with more than twenty gallons and
spilling it
C. people were not getting enough exercise and needed to walk, bike, or skate
D. too many motorists had odd – numbered plates
Questions 48
through 52 are based on the following passage.
As far back
as 700 B.C., man has talked about children being cared for by wolves. Romulus
and Remus, the legendary twin founders of Rome, were purported to have been
cared for by wolves. It is believed that when a she-wolf loses her litter, she
seeks a human child to take its place.
This seemingly preposterous idea did not become credible until the late
nineteenth century when a French doctor actually found a naked ten-year-old boy
wandering in the woods. He didn’t walk erect, could not speak intelligibly, nor
could he relate to people. He only growled and stared at them. Finally the
doctor won the boy’s confidence and began to work with him. After many long
years of devoted and patient instruction, the doctor was able to get the boy to
clothe and feed himself, recognize and uttera number of words, as well as write
letters and form words.
48. The
French doctor found the boy
A. wandering in the woods
B. at his doorstep
C. growling at him
D. speaking intelligibly.
49. In this
passage, the word litter most nearly means
A. garbage
B. master
C. offspring
D. hair
50. The
doctor was able to work with the boy because
A. the boy was highly intelligent
B. the boy trusted him
C. the boy liked to dress up
D. the boy was dedicated and patient
51. Which of
the following statements is not true ?
A. She-wolves have been said to substitute human children for their lost
litters
B. Examples of wolves’ caring for human children can be found only in the
nineteenth century.
C. The French doctor succeeded in domesticating the boy somewhat
D. The young boy never was able to speak perfectly
52. In this
passage, the word preposterous most nearly means
A. dedicated
B. scientific
C. wonderful
D. absurd
Directions
for questions 53 and 54
For each of
these questions, choose the answer that is closest in meaning to the original
sentence. Note that several of the choices may be factually correct, but you
should choose the one that is closest restatement of the given sentence.
53. Hal used to
play on the country club’s racquetball team.
A. Hal plays with the racquetball team at the country club
B. Hal doesn’t play racquetball anymore, but still belongs to the country club.
C. At one time hall played racquetball on the country club’s team.
D. Hal used to team up with the country club and play racquetball
54. Peter is
attending a private school and is majoring in electronics.
A. Peter is specializing in electronics at a private school
B. Peter is a major at a private electronics school.
C. although Peter is attending a private school, he’s majoring in electronics.
D. Peter’s private school is letting him major in electronics.
Questions 55 through 60 are based on the following reading.
Vibrio
parahaemolyticus is a bacteria that has been isolated from sea water, shell
fish, finfish, plankton, and salt springs. It has been a major cause of food
poisoning in Japan and the Japanese have done several studies on it. They have
confirmed the presence of V. parahaemolyticus in the north and central Pacific
with the highest abundance in inshore waters, particularly in or near large
harbors.
A man named Nishio studied the relationship between the chloride content of sea
water and the seasonal distribution of V. parahaemolyticus in sea water and
concluded that while the isolation of V. parahaemolyticus was independent of
the sodium chloride content, the distribution of V. parahaemolyticus in sea
water was dependent on the water temperature. In fact, it has been isolated in
high frequencies during summer, from June to September, but was not isolated
with the same frequency in winter.
Within four or five days after eating contaminated foods, a person will begin
to experience diarrhea, the most common symptom; this will very often be
accompanied by stomach cramps, nausea, and vomiting. Headache and fever, with
or without chills, may also be experienced.
55. Which of
the following locations would be most likely to have a high concentration of
Vibrio parahaemolyticus ?
A. a bay
B. a sea
C. the middle of the ocean
D. sediment
56. The
safest time for eating seafood is probably
A. August
B. November
C. July
D. September
57. The most
common symptom of Vibrio parahaemolyticus is
A. nausea
B. diarrhea
C. vomiting
D. headache and fever
58. The
incubation period for this illness is
A. several months
B. 2 to 3 days
C. 3 to 4 hours
D. 4 to 5 days
59. Nishio’s study showed that
A. the presence of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was dependent on neither the salt
content nor the water temperature
B. the presence of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was dependent on only the salt
content
C. the presence of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was independent on of both the water
temperature and the salt content
D. the presence of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was dependent on the water
temperature
60. The word
cramp in the reading means most nearly
A. noises
B. toxicity
C. severe pain
D. high temperature
